CAMLPR Hematology Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which myeloproliferative neoplasm is most likely with extreme thrombocytosis (platelets ~1180 x10^9/L) and JAK2 positivity with BCR-ABL negative?
• Factor V Leiden mutation results in which of the following?
• Cord blood findings show HbB 95%, HbP 5%, HbA 0%, HbA2 0%, HbF 0%; Hgb 30 g/L; RBC 1.9 x 10^12/L; MCV 60 fL; what is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Why can't heparin be used for coagulation testing?
• In flow cytometry, what does side scatter measure?
• What are plasma cells?
• Peripheral blood smear shows Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytes. What is the most likely interpretation?
• In neutrophil maturation after lineage commitment, which stage comes after metamyelocyte?
• What is the purpose of the mucin clot test?
• What indicates chronic bacterial meningitis?
• Dark staining coarse cytoplasmic granules in neutrophils are characteristic of which anomaly?
• ALL Burkitt is described with lymphoblasts that are deeply basophilic and vacuolated. Which diagnosis does this support?
• Why can't EDTA be used for coagulation testing?
• Which mutation is most commonly positive in hairy cell leukemia?
• A CBC shows severe pancytopenia with Hgb 68 g/L, WBC 1.2 × 10^9/L, platelets 15 × 10^9/L, and bone marrow described as hypocellular with a dry tap. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• What is the effect of heparin on antithrombin activity?
• Which peripheral smear finding is most characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?
• Which electrophoresis pattern is consistent with hemoglobin C disease?
• A CBC is performed with Hgb 78 g/L, Hct 0.290/L, RBC 4.0 x 10^12/L, WBC 15.0 x 10^9/L, PLT 85 x 10^9/L, MCV 91 fL, MCH 29 pg, MCHC 329 g/L, RETIC 11%, Peripheral Smear: Schistocytes, helmet cells. Additional Testing: uBIL 42 μmol/L, LDH 1800 U/L, CREA 290 μmol/L. Microbiology isolated E. coli O157:H7. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Which laboratory findings are typical of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• What is the purpose of citrate in blood collection for coagulation testing?
• A manual spun hematocrit yields a falsely increased result due to which factor?
• A patient shows lower than normal cell counts. What is a likely cause?
• Which diagnosis is most consistent with macrocytic anemia, elevated bilirubin, and a markedly elevated GGT in this patient?
• Which factors are vitamin K dependent?
• Which electrophoresis pattern is most indicative of beta-thalassemia trait?
• In the WBC histogram, which size threshold is used to measure white cells?
• Which anomaly is defined by bilobed neutrophils?
• Why must hemolyzed specimens be rejected for coagulation testing?
• If a CSF sample is yellow, what does this indicate?
• Which of the following is a non-infectious condition that can raise an ESR?
• Eosinophils are phagocytic cells that inactivate mast cell products and destroy parasites. What is their typical concentration range?
• In the RBC histogram, which component is excluded from direct measurement?
• Which statement best describes how the Hgb histogram is measured?
• Based on the CBC findings including basophilic stippling and ringed sideroblasts on Prussian Blue staining, what is the presumptive diagnosis?
• The normal adult lymphocyte count falls within which range?
• The platelet histogram has a fitted curve spanning which range?
• Which anomaly presents with blue cytoplasmic inclusions resembling Doehle bodies but larger?
• How are contact factor deficiencies noted (e.g. Prekallikrein, HMWK)?
• Which AML subtype is strongly associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation at presentation due to promyelocyte proliferation?
• Basophils are cells that become mast cells and participate in allergic reactions. What is their typical concentration range?
• What is the most common chromosomal defect found in myelodysplastic syndromes?
• In the CLL case, which smear finding is reported?
• Which staining result is positive in the ALL L2 case?
• Which methodology is used for hemoglobin measurement with Drabkin's reagent?
• A patient presents with >20% blasts; CD34 positive; myeloperoxidase negative; Sudan Black negative. Which AML subtype is most consistent?
• What is the purpose of an ESR test?
• Which enzyme acts on fibrin clots and fibrinogen to produce fibrin degradation products like D-Dimer?
• Which combination of iron studies best fits iron deficiency anemia?
• Which of the following is a reason for decreased ESR?
• Rouleaux formation on a smear is commonly associated with which condition?
• What indicates viral meningitis?
• Which observation is most consistent with aplastic anemia when considering a patient with anemia and low reticulocyte response?
• Which MCHC value indicates hypochromasia (MCHC below normal)?
• Which molecule is the primary plasminogen activator?
• A CBC shows echinocytes (burr-like cells) and supravital staining reveals multiple dark inclusions attached to RBC membranes. LDH is elevated and DAT is negative. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely?
• A smear shows dark stained cationic components and pale RBCs. Which staining issue most likely explains this?
• What pathway maintains Hgb in a reduced state?
• Which MCHC value is within the normal range (approximately 320-360 g/L)?
• Which erythroid precursor is described as having a peripheral nucleus?
• Which inclusion is commonly seen in patients after splenectomy?
• In the activation order of the extrinsic coagulation pathway, which sequence is correct?
• Which cell stage is the earliest recognizable in erythropoiesis, characterized by a round nucleus with visible nucleoli and chromatin?
• Which agent is used to bypass inhibitors in the management of low-titre FVIII inhibitors (<5 BU)?
• What is the Rule of 3 relationship between Hgb, Hct, and MCHC?
• Which cell is described as a polychromatic erythrocyte during erythropoiesis?
• Which pathway modulates oxygen release from hemoglobin in response to tissue demand?
• Which AML subtype is typically associated with strong nonspecific esterase positivity indicating monocytic differentiation?
• Bernard-Soulier syndrome is due to deficiency of which complex, leading to poor adhesion of von Willebrand factor and thrombocytopenia with large platelets?
• Fibrinogen-based deficiencies are treated with which of the following?
• What reagent is used in APTT testing?
• What is the earliest myeloid precursor before cell lineage distinction?
• Cryoprecipitate provides which of the following components?
• Bernard-Soulier syndrome involves deficiency of which receptor complex?
• Chédiak-Higashi syndrome features include which of the following?
• Which test is used to detect lupus anticoagulants in suspected antiphospholipid syndrome?
• What is the appearance of Bernard-Soulier syndrome in platelet function testing?
• What is hydrodynamic focusing in flow cytometry?
• What is the appearance of Glanzmann's thrombasthenia in platelet function testing?
• What is the FVIII:C inhibitor?
• A smear macroscopically grainy: what is the likely cause?
• For a patient with mild cyanosis, which abnormal hemoglobin is commonly found in elevated amounts?
• Which finding on electrophoresis is most characteristic of the multiple myeloma case?
• Which test results strongly support hairy cell leukemia in the second case?
• In the setting of reticulocytosis with anemia, which statement is generally true?
• Which condition is a known cause of increased ESR?
• G20210A mutation leads to which of the following?
• What are lymphocytes?
• What combination makes up the PT test reagent?
• After a cell lineage has been determined to be neutrophil, which stage follows?
• How is hemophilia B treated?
• Which test result would most strongly support hereditary spherocytosis over hereditary elliptocytosis?
• A smear shows well stained anionic components, but WBCs are poorly stained. What is the most likely cause?
• Where are coagulation factors produced?
• Which cytogenetic abnormality is POS in this case?
• Based on the CBC and iron studies, what is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Which combination of additional testing supports the erythroleukemia diagnosis?
• A CBC shows anemia with spherocytes; DAT is 4+ at 37°C; LDH elevated; uBIL elevated. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• What is the recommended recollection anticoagulant and correction factor when EDTA causes platelet clumping?
• For a patient on anticoagulant therapy, the INR range is typically?
• Which electrophoresis pattern is most indicative of beta-thalassemia major?
• An MCHC value above 360 g/L could indicate the presence of which cell type?
• In a healthy adult, what is the typical distribution of major hemoglobins?
• How is the Hgb histogram measured?
• What is the APTT reference range?
• What does forward scatter primarily measure in flow cytometry?
• Acute myeloid leukemia is defined by blasts above what percentage in marrow or peripheral blood?
• What smear feature is described in the Burkitt ALL case?
• The most common inherited bleeding disorder von Willebrand disease is often treated with which agent?
• In CML, the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is typically:
• Hemophilia B treatment uses which product?
• How is factor X deficiency treated?
• Which smear finding is most characteristic of marrow fibrosis on a complete blood count review?
• In the management of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which approach is central?
• What is the primary plasminogen activator?
• To manually prepare a blood smear in a patient with polycythemia, what adjustment is recommended to the spreading angle?
• In the iron deficiency anemia case, what does a negative Prussian Blue stain indicate?
• If a body fluid sample appears milky, what is this indicative of?
• What is the primary purpose of hemoglobin?
• Which Plasmodium species invades young red blood cells and shows visible stippling on infected cells?
• What pathway modulates the release of O2 based on tissue demand?
• In renal disease–related anemia, reticulocyte count is typically which of the following?
• Which pattern of iron studies is typical for iron deficiency anemia?
• What indicates FXIII deficiency?
• In the cyanmethemoglobin method, at what wavelength is the hemoglobin measured spectrophotometrically?
• Which malaria parasite is classically associated with Schuffner's stippling in infected RBCs?
• In a healthy newborn, hemoglobin F makes up roughly what proportion of total hemoglobin?
• A patient presents with monocytosis and hypercellular marrow showing monocytic and granulocytic dysplasia; BCR-ABL negative. Which diagnosis fits best?
• Which diagnosis is suggested by >20% megakaryoblasts with CD41/CD42 positivity and inv(3) on cytogenetics?
• Which diagnosis fits neutropenia with hypogranulated and hyposegmented neutrophils and abnormal myeloid maturation on marrow with high ferritin?
• Lupus anticoagulants are antibodies that inhibit the APTT reagent and are identified using which test?
• A heavy smoker presenting with headaches is most likely to have an elevated level of which hemoglobin species?
• Which syndrome features giant lysosomal granules in white cells and platelets?
• Which finding best supports anemia from malignancy in this patient data set?
• In the thrombotic microangiopathy cases, which red blood cell fragment is most typically seen on peripheral smear?
• Which diagnosis is most consistent with thrombocytopenia and dysmaturation of megakaryocytes on marrow?
• What is the reagent in the PT test?
• Which combination of findings best supports a diagnosis of sickle cell disease?
• How is hemophilia A treated?
• What are monocytes?
• When must testing occur for coagulation-based specimens?
• A CBC is performed with Hgb 72 g/L, Hct 0.290/L, RBC 5.0 x 10^12/L, WBC 11.5 x 10^9/L, PLT 18 x 10^9/L, MCV 83 fL, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 340 g/L, RETIC 10%, Peripheral Smear: Schistocytes, helmet cells. Additional Testing: uBIL 45 μmol/L, LDH 800 U/L, Coagulation Studies: PT 12 sec, APTT 40 sec. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• In the Rule of 3, what is the acceptable MCHC range?
• In anemia of inflammation, which iron parameter is typically elevated?
• A patient presents with anemia. Peripheral smear shows spherocytes. Direct antiglobulin test is negative. Osmotic fragility is positive. Supravital staining reveals blue-speckled red cells. Which hereditary condition is most likely?
• A CBC shows anemia with burr-like red cells on smear and dark inclusions on supravital stain. Urine shows blood in the 3+ range and LDH is elevated. DAT is negative. Which condition is most likely?
• Which markers are positive by flow cytometry in this case?
• A CBC shows elliptocytes. Direct antiglobulin test is negative. Osmotic fragility is negative. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• Glanzmann's thrombocytopenia is characterized by which of the following?
• ALL L1 presents with lymphoblasts and a hypercellular marrow with >25% lymphoblasts, MPO NEG, Sudan Black NEG, and PAS POS. Which diagnosis is most consistent?
• Which treatment is used for prothrombin-based deficiencies?
• Why are lipemic and icteric specimens not suitable for coagulation testing?
• Which of the following is NOT used to treat high titre inhibitors (>5 BU)?
• In monopoiesis, which sequence correctly describes the progression?
• In methemoglobinemia, the iron in hemoglobin is in which oxidation state?
• A CBC shows atypical B-lymphocytes and positive Monospot; EBV serology is positive. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• In the WBC histogram, which threshold is used to capture larger cells?
• Which sequence correctly describes lymphopoiesis?
• What is the normal red cell distribution width (RDW) range, and what does an RDW above 22% indicate?
• Based on the CBC and electrophoresis showing HbS predominance with no HbA and a sickled peripheral smear, what is the most likely diagnosis?
• A CBC shows Hgb 82 g/L, Hct 0.290/L, RBC 2.7 x 10^12/L, WBC 12.5 x 10^9/L, PLT 230 x 10^9/L, MCV 88 fL, MCH 29 pg, MCHC 330 g/L, RETIC 12%, uBIL 50 μmol/L, LDH 600 U/L, DAT 4+ at RT, DDAT 3+ C3D, Antibody Screen Anti-P, Urine BLOOD 2+. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Golf-ball inclusions on Brilliant Cresyl Blue smear with HbH on electrophoresis indicate which diagnosis?
• In Factor V Leiden, which coagulation factor remains active longer due to resistance to activated protein C?
• What is the reference range for prothrombin time (PT)?
• Heparin therapy is monitored by which of the following?
• A patient has 30% blasts in the bone marrow. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• LMWH is monitored with which assay?
• Which diagnosis is suggested by tear-drop (dacrocytes) RBCs and a dry tap with bone marrow fibrosis and a positive JAK2 mutation?
• What indicates bacterial meningitis?
• Which antigens are identified in B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
• Which situation is associated with a smear pale RBCs and dark basophilic components due to staining issues?
• Which of the following is NOT used to treat low titre FVIII inhibitors (<5 BU)?
• The FVIII:C inhibitor is best diagnosed by which description?
• Burr cells (echinocytes) on a peripheral smear are most commonly associated with which condition?
• A CBC shows bite cells on the smear and supravital staining revealing dark membrane inclusions. LDH is markedly elevated and DAT is negative. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely?
• A smear macroscopically very blue: what could cause this?
• A patient presents with severe anemia (Hgb 62 g/L), macrocytosis (MCV 108 fL), thrombocytopenia (PLT 55 x 10^9/L), a hypercellular marrow with erythroid precursors, and testing showing Periodic Acid Schiff POS and Myeloperoxidase POS. The peripheral smear shows myeloblasts. Which diagnosis is most consistent?
• Which statement best describes the action of Thrombin Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor?
• What pathway protects RBCs from oxidative damage?
• In suspected HIT, what is the recommended management?
• In sideroblastic anemia due to lead poisoning, which iron studies pattern is typical?
• Which of the following causes a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?
• When a patient becomes hypoxic, which physiological response stimulates increased hemoglobin production?
• In a patient with HbSC disease and marked hypertriglyceridemia, what artifact may affect the CBC results?
• Which diagnosis best fits the hematologic data showing HbA 96%, HbA2 4%, HbB 20%, HbF 0%, and microcytosis?
• What is the correct activation order for the common pathway?
• The fusion gene PML-RARA resulting from t(15;17) is the hallmark of which AML subtype?
• Which Plasmodium species invades young red blood cells and causes enlargement of the infected cells with singular ring forms?
• Which cell is characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
• Which chromosomes are defective in alpha thalassemia and beta thalassemia, respectively?
• Which laboratory pattern most strongly supports alcoholic liver disease as the cause of anemia in these results?
• Which INR value is associated with a mechanical heart valve in place?
• A patient has anemia with severely reduced eGFR (8 mL/min) and elevated creatinine. What is the most likely presumptive diagnosis?
• Which statement regarding basophils best describes their role in hypersensitivity?
• What cell morphology is characteristic of Sezary syndrome?
• In the basophil lineage, which cell becomes mast cells in tissue?
• Which of the following decreases the rate of migration in hemoglobin electrophoresis?
• At what temperature are coagulation specimens kept?
• A patient with t(15;17) PML-RARA fusion and elevated D-dimer has acute leukemia with abrupt coagulopathy. Which AML subtype is diagnosed?
• Which laboratory finding most supports extravascular red blood cell destruction?
• Based on ferritin elevation and abnormal erythrocyte maturation with a high ferritin and low TIBC, what is the presumptive diagnosis?
• What inhibits fibrinolysis?
• G20210A mutation occurs in which gene?
• A complete blood count shows anemia and the bone marrow contains 15% blasts, with peripheral smear showing hyposegmentation. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Aspirin’s effect on hemostasis is to which of the following?
• Monocytes typically range in the CBC as?
• In the eosinophil lineage, which stage is described as having an indented nucleus with orange granules?
• A CBC is performed with Hgb 60 g/L, Hct 0.290/L, RBC 3.0 x 10^12/L, WBC 18.0 x 10^9/L, PLT 40 x 10^9/L, MCV 91 fL, MCH 29 pg, MCHC 329 g/L, RETIC 10%, Peripheral Smear: Schistocytes, helmet cells, burr cells. Coagulation Testing: PT 40 sec, APTT 65 sec, TT 35 sec, D-dimer >500 ng/mL. Additional Testing: uBIL 80 μmol/L, LDH 700 U/L. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Which sequence correctly describes megakaryocytopoiesis?
• Poor staining of WBCs with RBCs well stained is most likely caused by not enough time in the stain. Which option best reflects this cause?
• A bone marrow assessment shows ringed sideroblasts comprising more than 15% of erythroid precursors. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• For citrate-specimen accuracy, what is the required maximum platelet count?
• In CSF analysis, if only the first tube is bloody and subsequent tubes are clear, this pattern supports which diagnosis?
• Which condition is associated with a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?
• Which antibody specificity is commonly associated with cold agglutinin disease?
• In monopoiesis, which stage shows a kidney bean nucleus with lacy chromatin and vacuoles in the cytoplasm?
• The most common inherited bleeding disorder is von Willebrand disease. What is a typical treatment?
• How are FVII deficiencies treated?
• Which feature differentiates ALL L2 from ALL L1?
• Macrocytic anemia with low folate and normal VB12; which presumptive diagnosis fits this pattern?
• Which diagnosis is supported by high hemoglobin, low erythropoietin, and JAK2 mutation positivity?
• If a newborn undergoes hemoglobin electrophoresis, what is the typical distribution of Hgb F and Hgb A?
• Which parasite resembles Plasmodium falciparum and has small ring-like protozoa in red blood cells?
• What is the principle behind impedance-based cell counting?
• Cytogenetics: t(6;9) translocation and nonspecific esterase positivity of 90%. Which AML subtype is suggested?
• Given Hct 0.400 L/L, Hgb 150 g/L, RBC 4.00 x 10^12/L, what is the MCH?
• A CBC shows severe anemia with macrocytosis and a hypercellular marrow with dysplastic changes in two lineages. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Overdose on heparin is reversed with which agent?
• A CBC shows extreme poikilocytosis with microspherocytes, an elevated reticulocyte count, a positive osmotic fragility test, and red cells lysing upon heating. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• Which statement best describes the effect of increased 2,3-DPG production on the oxygen dissociation curve?
• What pathway is the main source of energy production?
• What is the purpose of isoelectric focusing in protein electrophoresis?
• A case with >20% blasts, Auer rods, and t(8;21) positive. Which AML subtype is this?
• Given Hct 0.400 L/L and RBC 4.00 x 10^12/L, what is the MCV?
• What is the primary physiological plasmin inhibitor?
• What is the identity of plasma cells?
• How are prothrombin based deficiencies treated?
• In the disseminated intravascular coagulation case, which red blood cell morphology was observed alongside schistocytes?
• Which smear finding is most characteristic of hereditary elliptocytosis?
• Which diagnosis is best supported by thrombocytopenia with giant platelets and abnormal megakaryocytic maturation on bone marrow with high ferritin?
• Which Plasmodium species invades older red blood cells and characteristically forms a band form in trophozoites?
• The CBC pattern shows neutrophilia with toxic granulation and elevated CRP, with LAP markedly elevated. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• Which stain is used to visualize Heinz bodies?
• In alpha-thalassemia major (hydrops fetalis), which adult Hb type is absent on cord blood electrophoresis?
• What is the activation order of the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
• Which staining method is commonly used to identify malaria parasites on blood smears?
• Which assay is used to titrate factor VIII inhibitors?
• Basophilic stippling on a peripheral smear can be seen in lead intoxication and which hereditary disorder?
• A CBC shows HbS 39%, HbA 60%, HbF 1% with a positive Sickledex result. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which Plasmodium species invades both old and young red blood cells, can have multiple ring forms, and is associated with intravascular hemolysis; treatment includes chloroquine or quinine sulfate?
• Which INR value indicates hemorrhaging risk?
• Which antigens are identified in T-cell CLL?
• A CBC shows Hgb 104 g/L, WBC 68 x 10^9/L with lymphocytosis and smear showing smudge cells. Bone marrow is dry tap with fibrosis and DAT is positive. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Which pathway protects RBCs from oxidative damage?
• Which plasma protein is known to promote rouleaux formation and elevate ESR?
• Which AML subtype is classically associated with Auer rods on smear and high myeloperoxidase activity?
• Which stain is used to demonstrate ring sideroblasts?
• What is the normal reference range for MCV indicating normocytic erythrocytes?
• Which test result is negative in the ALL L1 case?
• Which statement correctly describes the amino acid substitutions of HbC and HbS relative to normal adult hemoglobin?
• Which pathway is the main energy source in cells like red blood cells?
• To which pathway does Factor X belong in the described activation sequence?
• In a healthy adult, what is the typical upper limit for Hgb A2 fraction?
• For a patient with severe anemia, how should the smear angle be adjusted?
• Punch out crenated RBCs with refractory blotches; what artifact is this and how to prevent?
• Hemophilia C treatment option includes which of the following?
• Which is the purpose of identifying elevated D-Dimers?
• Which laboratory pattern best indicates intravascular hemolysis?
• Which substance initiates the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
• Which anticoagulant is used for routine coagulation testing?
• In the leukemia case with atypical lymphocytes and a dry tap on marrow, which diagnosis is most likely?
• An end of feathered edge shows increased blue spicules; what does this indicate?
• In a patient being treated for a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli who presents with cyanosis, which abnormal hemoglobin is likely increased?
• A smear macroscopically has holes. This is caused by what?
• What is the purpose and method of preparing a thick and thin malaria blood smear?
• What is the principle behind high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)?
• Bite cells and supravital staining revealing dark inclusions are most characteristic of which enzyme deficiency?
• Which of the following causes a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?
• A CBC shows anemia with rouleaux on smear, M-spike on electrophoresis, and hypercalcemia. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• HIT is characterized by which of the following?
• Which factor is the most important antithrombotic factor?
• A monocytic leukemia case with t(9;11) translocation and CD14/CD64 positivity. Which AML subtype is this?
• How is hemophilia C treated?
• Which CSF profile is most characteristic of chronic bacterial meningitis?
• Which diagnosis best fits the data showing HbA 92-96%, HbA2 elevated (4-6%), HbF near zero in a patient with microcytosis?
• A CSF sample shows blood in all tubes after lumbar puncture. This pattern most strongly indicates which condition?
• Which staining result is positive in the ALL L1 case?
• Where do T cells differentiate compared to B cells?
• Which syndrome is characterized by giant lysosomal granules in granulocytes, macrophages, and platelets, with partial albinism and recurrent infections?
• A CBC shows HbC predominance on electrophoresis with rectangular crystals on smear. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• Which cell type is described on the peripheral smear in this case?
• Which of the following is a granulocyte?
• CBC with low PLT and a smear showing platelets around neutrophils. What causes this and next action?
• What indicates a parasitic or fungal infection?
• During manual hematocrit testing, which factor can falsely decrease the result?
• A smear showing RBC agglutination is most likely to be observed in which condition?
• In a patient with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the direct antiglobulin test at 37°C is positive. Which autoantibody class is most likely responsible?
• In essential thrombocythemia, which smear feature is commonly observed?
• A CBC shows RBC agglutination and a positive direct antiglobulin test at room temperature with an anti-I specificity on the antibody screen. Which diagnosis fits best?
• Which test result is most diagnostic for pernicious anemia when evaluating megaloblastic anemia?
• Given Hct 0.400, Hgb 150 g/L, RBC 4.00 x 10^12/L, what is the MCHC?
• During manual hematocrit testing, which factor can falsely increase the result?
• Which PAS-related result is noted in the Burkitt ALL case?
• In flow cytometry, hydrodynamic focusing prevents which artifact?
• Which statement best describes the management priority in DIC?
• Which of the following increases the rate of migration in hemoglobin electrophoresis?
• ALL L2 is described with CBC showing WBC 46 x 10^9/L and marrow with >25% lymphoblasts; MPO NEG; Sudan Black NEG; PAS POS. Which diagnosis is most consistent?
• Which anomaly features bilobed neutrophils commonly seen in myelodysplasia or leukemia?
• Which red blood cell abnormality is commonly associated with a decreased ESR?
• A CBC with WBC markedly elevated and BCR-ABL positive. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• In the PLT histogram, platelets are measured directly from which size range?
• During erythropoiesis, which stage shows a pink-tinged cytoplasm and a condensing nucleus?
• In a patient with megaloblastic anemia, Schilling test shows B12 detected in urine only after intrinsic factor (IF) is given. What is the presumptive diagnosis?
• In the RBC histogram, RBCs are measured directly from which size range?
• Which statement about plasmin is correct?